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Delegitimising Israel by Delegitimising Scripture
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03-19-2011, 10:51 PM
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PhillipHer
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'"Palestine" by Herodotus in 450 '
1. Thats an a-historic assertion. The land was punitively renamed such by the Romans after the Bar Kohba revolt.
2. Philistine colonized areas, per se, also have nothing to do with Arab etc claims, and they were invaders in their own right.
3. Herodotus makes an uninformed claim. From his writings, please do read the original they're interesting, it seems he knew very little about anything other than hearsay above and beyond Greece. i.e., Herodotus believed there were Amazons ("Androktones", "killers of men") in Trace you know. Absolutely no evidence of that ever came to be.
Also... it should be noted that there is good reason to consider that Hebrews are a mix of two populations, namely Arameans from what is now Iraq and Canaanites. This holds in modern genetic testing by the way to a great extent to nearly all parts of the Jews, including overwhelming majority of Ashkenasim.
It should also be noted that there is significant evidence of Hebrews in Egypt as early as the first temple period and certainly possible before that (mercenaries guarding the Kush frontier for instance in Elephantine), but not as slaves though. "Hapiru" is furthermore a name the middle kingdom Egyptians used vis-a-vis people to their North East that harassed their expeditions in presumably Sinai and onward. HPR = HBR is plausible.
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