Thread: Does 1+1 = 2?
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Old 11-11-2006, 04:39 AM   #21
rengerts
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Originally posted by civman2000

Wow, that's the worst mangling of Russell's paradox I've ever seen . Allowing sets to contain themselves is, IIRC, perfectly consistent. Russell's paradox really has to do with the inconsistency of having a set of all sets. thats cause set of sets is called a match
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