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**avitalporatova** · 04-20-2007, 07:10 PM

Originally posted by TheStinger

First the best the Germans could have hoped for was a numerical advantage in the air not superioity.
Even if they did have that advantage the Royal navy was so much bigger than the German navy they would have mauled any attempts to supply a becahead which probably could have been established.

Britain would have has in excess of 500,000 troops to chuck at the Germans and with the Germans out of suppply and with few tanks they would have been destroyed Maybe, maybe not. I agree with this in 1940 and 1941. But if Germany builds up as the allies did, I think an invasion would have been possible eventually.

As we showed in the Pacific War, airpower dominates seapower. If the British navy shows up in an area dominated by the German airforce, it loses, not the Germans.

But this whole discussion begs another issue I have never been clear about. Just when did Germany lose air parity, at least, over the channel? Had they maintained the air assault on Britain and stayed at least even over the years, D-Day 1944 does not happen and Germany does not lose the war -- at least not so soon.

But you say, they needed their airforce in Africa and Russia.

My point.

04-20-2007, 07:10 PM	#9
avitalporatova Join Date Oct 2005 Posts 375 Senior Member	Originally posted by TheStinger First the best the Germans could have hoped for was a numerical advantage in the air not superioity. Even if they did have that advantage the Royal navy was so much bigger than the German navy they would have mauled any attempts to supply a becahead which probably could have been established. Britain would have has in excess of 500,000 troops to chuck at the Germans and with the Germans out of suppply and with few tanks they would have been destroyed Maybe, maybe not. I agree with this in 1940 and 1941. But if Germany builds up as the allies did, I think an invasion would have been possible eventually. As we showed in the Pacific War, airpower dominates seapower. If the British navy shows up in an area dominated by the German airforce, it loses, not the Germans. But this whole discussion begs another issue I have never been clear about. Just when did Germany lose air parity, at least, over the channel? Had they maintained the air assault on Britain and stayed at least even over the years, D-Day 1944 does not happen and Germany does not lose the war -- at least not so soon. But you say, they needed their airforce in Africa and Russia. My point.
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