[Lictimind]

Originally posted by Brachy-Pride
Where do Slavs come from? Well, little Brachy, when a daddy Slav loves a mommy Slav very, very much...

[meencegic]

The origin of Slavs is very much disputed and You can find numerous answers. But most include larger or smaller parts of Poland, Ukraine and Byelorus.

[BebopVT]

all Indoeuropeans arrived from somewhere else, You know.

[OEMCHEAPSOFTDOWNLOAD]

Originally posted by Blaupanzer


Makes you wonder who drove them all out to the west. Must have been some mean dudes. Some of them went east instead

[wsbizwsa]

at what time did turks move to central asia and kill expulse all scythian, iranian nomads?

[Lolita Palmer]

I thought that the slavs originated on the Hungarian plains then after the demise of the Huns expanded south into the balkans and northeast into eastern europe.

The huns really screwed up a lot of people. Is it true that they were the remnants of the empire of Hsing-nu?

[MilenaJaf]

The Slavs are derived from a early Iron Age Indo-European culture based in Eastern Poland, Southern Belarus, and Western Ukraine. This culture was related to the Baltic peoples, but had a significant influence from Indo-Iranian nomads boardering them, such as the Scythians.

[inhitoemits]

Originally posted by Dr Strangelove

The huns really screwed up a lot of people. Is it true that they were the remnants of the empire of Hsing-nu? As far as I know, yes.

[ycMC0PLg]

The original Huns came and went. The invaded Europe, reached as far as Rome, and eventually left. Ostensibly they went "home," wherever that was. The current inhabitants of Hungary are Magyars, who came later. Some historians think the original Huns' resettled in what became the path of Ghengis Khan's conquest, refused to surrender, and had their cities annihilated much like Kiev.

[salomal-qask]

Originally posted by Heresson
Slavs did not origin from Hungarian plain. In the Roman times, peoples living there were iranian. Late IV century chronicle of Ammianus Marcellinus gives an interesting details of a treacherous attack of local people on emperor Constantine saying that they rushed at him crying out "Marha marha". That means "death" in persian (Marg bar Esroil! Marg bar Emriko!)...
Romans do not mention Slavs, at least over Donau, until V century or VI, I do not recall. Yet, there's an interesting story of X or XI century (I don't recall) Kievan historian who says that Poles originated from over Donau, but yet Wlachs were making harm to them, so they moved here.
Wlachs is a name for Latin-speaking people, especially Romanians and Italians, Italy's name in polish is Wlochy, and southern Romania = Woloszczyzna, which used to be the name of Moldavia in polish as well, until it switched names with its southern counterpart).
It is EXTREMLY interesting. Because Romanians do not, as they say, origin from Dacia. Not at all. they are remains of Roman settlers from southern banks of Donau, from Illyricum and Thrace. Were Poles inhabiting modern-day Romania before Romanians, pushed out from thrace by other Slavs, forced them north?
Or did Nestor mean Romans?
There's a story in Ammianus or some other late-antiquity historians whose work I've read about Sarmatians that some tribe of Sarmatians was enslaved by other. The emperor freed it, yet it attacked RE later on, so Romans forced it to move somewhere far away in the north.

So you mean that Poles/slavs replaced the Dacians and were consequently replaced by modern Romanians. That would mean Romanians are not clean blooded Dacians? I'm shocked.

[maniaringsq]

Originally posted by chegitz guevara
They were part of the reason why the Germans moved West. Who in turn pushed the Angles and Saxons into Britain, perhaps. There was a lot of population movement in around the 6th/7th century.

[JNancy46]

Now, now, Pekka, it's probably not a good idea to go around calling a racial group subhuman

Best edit that before the mods see it

[oemcheapdownload]

Babes

I can get more pics if you want

[Tinasblue]

I don't have a problem with people mixing hate-speech and jokes.

Don't worry, I won't be posting to this thread anymore. I just wanted to defend myself, since you are saying I posted hate-speech, which I didn't. Even though you requested PM if I have a problem with this, please do consider that I don't have a problem with you deleting my posts. I am just defending myself against a statement where I make hate-speech. And even that discussion is done with if it's up to me, so ... let's continue the thread as usual.

[jgztw2es]

Back off topic, *damn* those girls are amazing Especially the 1st/4th

[mplawssix]

Joanna

[AbraroLib]

Was former yugoslavia badly romanized?
I mean, because romance langauges were completely replaced there

Or did the slavs just kill a lot of people there?

[poulaMahmah]

Originally posted by Brachy-Pride
Was former yugoslavia badly romanized?
I mean, because romance langauges were completely replaced there

Or did the slavs just kill a lot of people there? I think the main reason is exodus of romance people, especially to the cities on the shores; these remained romance for much longer. I think Dalmatian language went extinct only in XIX century... Some got slavicised surely, after all Bulgarians and post-Yugoslavians are much darker than "normal" Slavs. They had to absorb local population.

Also, they took refuge in territories we now know as Romania, and pushed out some Slavs, other they romanised.

[RaicickKida]

Originally posted by Brachy-Pride
Was former yugoslavia badly romanized?
I mean, because romance langauges were completely replaced there

Or did the slavs just kill a lot of people there? The same question could be asked of England. Did the Germans exterminate the Britons?

I think the general assumption once upon a time was yes. But, IIRC, new research demonstrates that the Germans did not engage in a general slaughter of the Britons. They co-mingled. But the German language prevailed. Why?

[Golotop]

Originally posted by Wernazuma III



Sometimes I wonder the same. But not only Yugoslavia, also cisdanuvian Hungary, Austria, Switzerland, southern Germany, England.
Romance elements in English come from a handful Germanic Vikings who picked up French while being a Roman province had no lasting effect, it seems. Romania was a province of Rome for only a little more than a generation, yet it has retained a romance language for more than one and one half millenia. Yes, I know that the country was controlled by a Roman garrison after it escaped Roman control, but in the intervening 1700+ years it has been overrun by Goths, Huns, Pechnegs (sp), Bulgarians, Slavs and probably others I don't know about.

Gaul was overrun by Germanic tribes, but the French language has few remnants of German. Maybe the crucial factor was that Charlemagne declared his empire to be Roman. He also pretty much created feudalism, which meant that his fellow tribesmen became his family and he became their patriarch. Might he have commanded his German troops to learn the local variant of Latin?

In the Anglo-Saxon lands no matter how many of the original Britons survived it's clear that they were relegated to slave status, so they didn't get a choice of what language was to be spoken. The contempt of the conquerers for the original people was so complete that they labeled the free survivors 'welsh' meaning foreigners. (Sorta reminds me of the lies generated by the Afrikaners about the African tribes of South Africa not being native to the area.)